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Eddy Currents in Non-Ferrous Objects.

A

Anonymous

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Below is a good understandable description of the eddy current behaviour in solid non-ferrous objects. It is taken from a paper on unexploded ordnance detection by Peter Kaczkowski, Applied Physics Laboratory, University of Washington
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THE THREE STAGES OF THE PULSE RESPONSE
The pulse response of a confined conductor is conveniently divided into three time intervals, each of which corresponds to a different physical regime. At turn off of the TX pulse, currents form on the outside of the conductor in such a way as to exactly preserve the magnetic field that was inside the conductor just before turn off. In the very early instants after turn off, the induced currents are confined to the outermost parts of the conductor. This is consistent with the idea that early times correspond to very high frequencies, and at high frequencies the skin effect prevents currents from penetrating into the conductor. In this early time stage, it is clear that the current distribution depends on the primary field and on the external shape of the conductor, but is relatively insensitive to the target
 
Reference: Robert Hooko's post 13 Jan 02 Re: JSPI etc.
Here's my theory of metallic iron response, seen primarily from a VLF viewpoint, but it sheds some light on PI as well.
Iron is a low-conductivity metal. However, its phase response internally is like a high-conductivity target, because although the electrical conductivity is low, its magnetic permeability produces an increase in the inductance of the eddy-current path.
Externally, the magnetic permeability of the iron also distorts the magnetic field, independently of the fact that the iron is conductive and can support eddy currents. In a VLF machine, we look for signals while the field is changing, so we see this effect, which is similar to that of ferrite. Superimposed on that effect is the eddy current effect.
If the reactive component of the magnetic permeability response were equal in magnitude to the reactive component of the eddy current response, the two would cancel and you'd have a target with a 90 degree magnetic loss angle, which would appear as a target having a zero degree electrical angle (i.e., resistive). This can happen on flat iron the plane of which is oriented at right angles to the field, minimizing the permeability effect.
If we ignore such special cases, and restrict ourselves to things like nails and lumps of iron, then we have the following situation.
It is an observable fact that regardless of frequency (or pulsewidth, if you prefer) iron doesn't come close to a 0 degree loss angle like ferrite, nor does it come close to a 90 degree loss angle like salt water. It may bounce all over the place, but it stays away from those two limits. It's always somewhere in the broad middle region.
When the resistive and reactive components are demodulated and then differentiated and divided to get apparent phase, then you're looking at phase trajectories. If you interpret this as actual phase (as is the custom) then you'll often find apparent phase coming close to the 0 and 90 degree limits or even going beyond momentarily. We will limit the discussion here to the actual phase as seen when looking at the static signals without "motion circuits".
So, what keeps iron away from the 0 and 90 degree loss angle boundaries?
If the iron has fairly low permeability due to its composition or orientation, then the permeability effect produces a fairly weak vector in the direction of ferrite (0 degrees). If all else were equal, then the reactive component (180 degrees) of the eddy current vector would be strong in comparison, and the target would look nonferrous.
However, if the permeability is low, then the inductance of the eddy current loop is also low, and internally the iron acts as though it were lower conductivity, with a corresponding reduction in its 180 degree reactive component. So, the 0 and 180 degree reactive components tend to maintain their relationship of balance toward 0 degrees.
So, with low permeability, why doesn't the resistive component push the result toward the 90 degree loss axis?
High permeability attracts the magnetic field to the target, increasing the magnitude of its eddy currents the same as though it were nonferrous and had been immersed in a stronger field. (You gold prospectors know how loud a signal a tiny iron wire whisker can give, especially if surrounded by magnetic rust!) Reducing the permeability reduces the total eddy current, and hence its resistive component.
The result is that iron tends to fall somewhere in the broad midrange between 0 and 90 degree magnetic loss angle, regardless of the material permeability or orientation.
So why does the permeability component always dominate, keeping the loss angle below 90 degrees? I have two explanations, but am not sure if either of them is the right one.
First explanation: Because the iron attracts a magnetic field from a region larger than itself, the permeability effect acts like a bigger target. (In magnetics engineering this effect is called "effective permeability", which is always greater than unity for magnetic materials).
Second explanation: the permeability vector is at 0 degrees, whereas the eddy current vector is somewhere between 90 and 180 degrees. If we assume that the eddy current vector cannot have a magnitude greater than the permeability vector, then the reactive component of the eddy current vector will always have a smaller absolute magnitude than that of the permeability vector.
"REACTIVE COMPONENT" IN PULSE INDUCTION
For the sake of convenience, in pulse induction we frequently say that the period during which current is flowing in the transmitter coil corresponds to the reactive component, and the decay afterwards corresponds to the resistive component. Although this provides a convenient analogy to VLF practice, it is not mathematically correct.
A lossless nonferrous target (i.e. a superconductor) would respond only during the transmit/flyback period, and would produce no detectable decay afterwards. On an IB loop, it would look like ferrite, but upside down. This effect, like that of an ideal ferrite, is independent of frequency.
An actual target, however, has reactive responses which are frequency-dependent. If you were to take all the independent reactive sinusoids over the frequency spectrum and superimpose them, they would not reproduce the time-domain transmit/flyback pulse. The resulting waveform would be doing lots of interesting stuff during the "decay period" as well.
WHY THE DECAY CURVE OF IRON HAS A DIFFERENT SHAPE
The high permeability of iron tends to restrict magnetic fields and hence eddy currents to a thinner skin depth than an otherwise similar nonferrous material. Skin depth varies with frequency. In the case a nonferrous material, as the geometry of the eddy current path changes over (decay) time, the inductance and resistance of that path change as well.
In the case of iron, we have a third variable: effective permeability. That, too, is dependent on geometry. It does not vary in proportion to the unity-permeability inductance of the current path; and, what's more, its effect on field distribution influences the geometry of the eddy current distribution.
--Dave J.
 
Hi Dave,
How do you explain the case of a bobby pin giving a large signal? The greatest amplitude is when the coil field is aligned along the pin. The eddy current path is extremely small and even if the inductance was enhanced by the permiability, it is hard to see that such a tiny cross section could give the signal it does. My preferred explanation is magnetic domain relaxation i.e the TX field magnetizes the pin and when the field is removed, the induced moment decays with time.
Eric.
 
ENDWISE IRON
The effective permeability of a ferrite rod is many times higher lengthwise than sideways. Same thing with nails, bobby pins, etc. And, the tiny iron whiskers that so often plague gold prospecters.
Looking at a nail endwise, the diameter of the eddy current path is small. But, the lengthwise orientation captures magnetic flux from an area many times the cross-section of the nail and concentrates it into that cross-section, causing the same voltage to be induced as would have been induced if the current path had been of a diameter many times larger.
But that's not all. The lines of flux go lengthwise in the nail, inducing voltage and therefore current along its entire length. If you add it up, that's a lot of current.
The overall effect is as though you had a current ring of a diameter perhaps half the length of the nail, and an electrical loss angle of about 45 degrees. (Perhaps some enterprising soul will actual compare response of a nail and a loop with resistance in series, to determine what diameter loop gives equal signal at equal mean distance; and, report their findings here.)
NAIL HEADS
You may have noticed that the head end of a nail gives a response stronger than you'd expect from the shank of the nail and the head of the nail considered separately. This is because the head of the nail acts as a flux concentrator for the shank. So if you had a headless nail and added a head, you'd not only get the response from the head itself, you'd get increased response because of the shank guiding so much flux through it; and, you get increased response from the shank also because of the increased flux intercepted by the head and guided into the shank.
A coil wound on a ferrite cylinder with flanges added at the ends has a much higher inductance than the cylinder by itself. Same principle-- decreased reluctance in the magnetic path.
--Dave J.
 
Hi Dave,
The steel wire cut from a 1N4148 diode has a decay stretching out to a millisecond. The wire is 0.5mm diameter and if this was a non-ferrous wire of moderate conductivity, it would have a time constant of much less than a microsecond. Enhanced by permiability you may get to 100us or so but a millisecond is stretching it a bit, without some other factor. Magnetic relaxation is a well established and documented fact and the type of signal fits this phenomenon, particulary at late times where a log amplifier still shows a pronounced curve.
Eric.
 
I think that at first (after flyback) the eddy current response would be many times greater than the thermal response, but that the eddy current response would decay faster than the thermal response which would eventually dominate.
That seems to be what you said in different words.
My guess is that in a practical PI machine, you wouldn't sit around waiting for the (weak) thermal effect to dominate, you'd get on with another pulse. But, there may be an advantage in sticking around for the thermal tail, possibly in connection with maghemite cancellation rather than iron discrimination.
--Dave J.
 
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