DK, to the contrary. The "man in CA" got an answer. Re-read through the thread, and you will see it in one of the replies, even to the point where I spell back (to make sure I'm understanding it correctly).
The answer was, that the reason I Cor. 12:30 doesn't *mean* that not all Christians speak (or should speak anyhow) in tongues, is that the verse only applies to when it's a person's MAJOR gift. But that there is no prohibition that we call can't have it, to some degree. The example given to me, which I can understand, is this: Take for example the gift of faith, right? We all know that those that don't have an immeasurable gift of faith, don't have ZERO faith, right? Or those that have the gift of evangelism: they are specifically specially gifted there right? But the rest of us can still lead someone to the Lord at times, yet it is not our "specialty". So if you look at it in those ways, we all have all the gifts, but they are all not our MAJOR gifts.
Thus, for the non-charismatic position to use I Cor. 12:30 to say that "not all speak in tongues", can be skirted around. Ie.: it doesn't say, what it appears to say on the surface.
So I did indeed get an answer. It can be studied further, for sure, and I'm open to anyone's scrutiny of that answer, from either side of the equation please. But in the meantime, it is a compelling answer, that can't be discounted as a possible answer (nor is it demanded as a possible answer though either).
Therefore please DK, if you think I (and you) got the run-around and no answers in this, please re-consider.